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Hi Judie, if a husband or wife becomes hiv positive during their
marriage through blood transfusion etc, what are they
to do in terms of continuing sexual relations without
trassfering the disease to the other? must they abstain or would it be acceptable to use a
condom in order not to pass on the disease (not for
contraceptive purposes)? It seems extremely difficult for a married couple to
never have intercourse again during their marriage. I
would really appreciate a response. thank you and God
Bless You. Anon |
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| Answer by Judie Brown on 12/24/2012: | ||||||||
Dear Anon The issue of actual contagion with the HIV virus has been the subject of much study
and research. Bottom line is as follows: once the "viral load" has been effectively
reduced with the anti-viral medications available today, the transmission of the HIV
virus via the contact with the sperm of an HIV positive man, is greatly reduced and
the current thought is that he is not contagious.
Abstinence would be required until the anti-viral therapy has taken effect. The use
of a condom would not be permitted even though the intent would not be
contraceptive. The condom itself is not a therapy and therefore the principle of
double effect does not apply.
Anthony N Dardano, MD, FACS, FACOG. |
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