If it's okay I'll take one last shot at this. Thank you for your indulgence.

When explaining a moral object it seems that you are automatically adding an intent or circumstance on to the matter of the act without admitting it.

The matter of telling an untruth is the "what" of the act, but can be justified when the other doesn't derserve the truth; the matter of taking something that doesn't belong to you is the "what" of an act, but is justified when there is danger of death; the matter of placing a knife into the chest of an innocent person is the "what" of an act, but is justified if you happen to be a surgeon dealing with a patient. All of these physical objects or "whats" of the act are neutral until an added intent or circumstance is added.

Recognizing this it seems the only acts that are always wrong by virtue of the matter alone are those violating the sixth commandment. But even these can be challenged. Suppose a madman holds you and your wife hostage and tells you he will kill your wife if you do not have sex with his girlfriend within ten minutes. The physical act of adultery must be performed in order to save your wife's life, and there are no other apparent options Justifiable?

If there are circumstances that can justify telling an untruth, taking someone else's property, and even taking someone's life in order to save an innocent life, wouldn't the matter of sexual sin ALSO be justified in order to save an innocent life?

If there are potential circumstances that could possibly make all objects justifiable, can we really speak of moral absolutes that are always wrong by virtue of their matter alone?

If you read Veritatis Splendor very carefully, you will learn that the Church's teaching is that a human action can be morally justifiable by virtue of its moral object alone, and that there are some human actions that are always morally justifiable by virtue of their moral object alone. Those moral objects are identical with their physical objects.

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